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How is that property useless? It pretty much gave the answer away.
f(x) = f(a-x)
cosx = sin(pi/2 - x)
This has nothing to do with straightforward trig integrals. If you look at my working, I didn't even bother integrating the trig, simply manipulated the integral to something more straightforward. If you're confident, I could post another question and reward you in LGI'm too lazy to Google the integral of trig functions.
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- 11 Feb. 2010 04:23am #1
- 11 Feb. 2010 05:32am #2
Because the integral of f(x) from 0 to a is not always f(a - x). That's dependent on what f is.
Originally Posted by Artificial 
How is that property useless? It pretty much gave the answer away.
f(x) = f(a-x)
cosx = sin(pi/2 - x)
This has nothing to do with straightforward trig integrals. If you look at my working, I didn't even bother integrating the trig, simply manipulated the integral to something more straightforward. If you're confident, I could post another question and reward you in LG
I'm pretty sure. Been many a year since I've taken Calculus, and I sure as Hell don't give a damn to do any more trig functions. If you wanna give me a Cal problem that doesn't involve trig functions, sure. I love math, 'cause it doesn't involve memorizing. Trig functions seemed like they were always about memorizing...
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